Showing posts with label Will Kinney. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Will Kinney. Show all posts

Friday, February 06, 2026

Pure Cambridge Edition (PCE) of the King James Version - Clearing the Myths

I recently asked Pastor Bryan Ross (link to my question):

I noticed something in your notes that I myself have been puzzling about for about the last year or two. What is the actual first publication date for the PCE? Usually I hear "around 1900", which strikes me as odd. Surely someone who loves the PCE (perhaps Mr. Kinney?) should have been able to identify the first printing of that edition by now.

Pastor Ross responded by informing me that he would begin addressing that very question in an upcoming lesson.  He has now responded with a video lesson (link to video).  The accompanying notes (link to the notes) are a treasure trove of information, which directly and thoroughly answers my question.

The key insight from that article, as it relates to my question, is this:

The first “definitive” PCE was actually the 2006 electronic edition.

In more detail:

As the Guide describes the process, Verschuur and his associates spent several years comparing historical Cambridge/Collins printings, reconciling differences, and correcting perceived errors. This project culminated in 2006, when Verschuur completed what he calls the first truly authoritative PCE text. The Guide states plainly, “The electronic file was finalised… July 2006.” This finalized electronic edition is the first version that the Guide presents as complete, perfect, and definitive. In effect, the PCE—understood as a precise, unified, authoritative text—came into existence not in the early 1900s but in 2006, through deliberate editorial reconstruction.

The "Guide" refers to Matthew Verschuur's Guide to the Pure Cambridge Edition. Bible Protector, 2013 (link to source).

I suppose that this July will mark the 20th anniversary of the creation of the PCE, an edition that has obtained the support of many King James advocates in this century.  I am unaware of any response as yet from Mr. Verschuur; at this time of this writing, Pastor Ross's comments are only a few days old, so it's not as though Mr. Verschuur has had a full opportunity to respond to them.  His initial response seems to have been to accuse Pastor Ross of unspecified "misinterpretations and wrong implications" (link to source). As a minor aside, I would like to hear from Will Kinney regarding his claim that his standard (which I believe he says is "the Cambridge," by which I think he means the PCE, though perhaps he means a different Cambridge edition) was around before he was born.

I noticed that Mr. Verschuur also posted a video, "9 Decades of PCES," after he left his comment alleging misrepresentation.  His video points to a printed 1911 KJV printed by the British and Foreign Bible Society on the Cambridge University Press. Mr. Verschuur asserts that this is an example of the PCE.  His justification for this assertion is that the copy in question "matches a set of readings that are consistent across the 20th century." He also asserts that there is "a continuum of the same editorial set of readings in the 1911, the 1990s..."  and argues that the question is not when the PCE was first printed but whether there is a "collective of editions with the same set of readings."  Mr. Verschuur acknowledges that there may be errors in the editions, which he characterizes as "mistakes somewhere in the typesetting."  He asks: "Does that make a Bible invalid?" and he answers it: "Of course not."  So, even after pointing to the 1911 printing, Verschuur does not say that the 1911 cannot be further improved.  Instead, Verschuur reserves that for what he refers to as a "text file," presumably the output of July 2006 (or perhaps even a later date, if Verschuur detected any perceived errors in the 2006 file).

From my standpoint, while it is interesting that Mr. Verschuur identifies a specific 1911 printed edition as an example of the PCE, since PCE is defined as merely any one of potentially numerous and at least multiple editions that share a collection of readings that were selected by Mr. Verschuur.

If the standard of perfection is complete perfection, then it's hard to see how a version that falls short of that perfection in something as seemingly trivial as a "full stop" ("."), which is one of Mr. Verschuur's examples, is perfect.

Mr. Verschuur is right to say that it is not reasonable to say that the Bible is not a "valid" Bible because of the absence of a period.  However, that also applies to other minor errors, and there is no bright line between major and minor errors.  I think we would all agree that the so-called "wicked Bible" (a printing of the KJV that had "thou shalt commit adultery") contains an error that is major in one sense and yet also minor in another sense.

Prior to his "9 Decades" video, Mr. Verschuur posted (within the last month or so) three other videos: a three minute video showing different printings of what he asserts are examples of the PCE (link to video) and two two-hour long videos, respectively parts 1 and 2, of "Assessing the assessor of the Pure Cambridge Edition position" (part 1)(part 2).  There is also a three-minute video called "Noble Empire," which appears to be a Udio-generated song, but with no argumentative substance (link to video).

Interestingly, one of the allegedly PCE Bibles shown in the first video is printed on the occasion of the coronation of Her Majesty Queen Elizabeth II, but is only a New Testament.   Given that 6 of the 12 markers identified by Verschuur are in the Old Testament, I suppose it's naturally easier for a New Testament to qualify if one doesn't have to have the markers for books that are not included.  Of course, that logic leads to the absurd result that my Scottish metrical psalter is a PCE printing, since the 12 PCE criteria do not include any markers in Psalms.

In the "Assessing the assessor" videos, Verschuur names Bryan Ross and offers some responses to earlier videos in Ross's series (the video by Ross, which I've linked above, is not the first of the series).  Interestingly (to me), Verschuur complains that he's being misrepresented, while simultaneously making comments suggesting that his own edition (which he says he brought out in 2007, "And so you can actually see that it was then in 2007 when I brought out my website that an electronic copy of the Pure Cambridge Edition was published.") is the standard and suggesting that others don't agree because they don't want there to be any standard.

Unfortunately, for Verschuur, he does not seem to be able to engage the same level of dialog or research as Pastor Ross.  Instead of pointing to concrete errors in Ross's research or identifying flawed arguments offered by Ross, Verschuur resorts to what can best be described as hand-waving, such as by asserting that Ross is offering a "human rationalistic exercise" (around 13 minutes in in part 1).  He shortly thereafter says he doesn't want to say that Ross is "a rank Modernist or heretic or something like that."  His meandering thoughts, however, do not appear to provide any concrete rebuttal to anything that Ross offered.  One could adequately, I think, summarize Verschuur's response as consisting of a reiteration of positions already mentioned by Ross coupled with statements suggesting that somehow the rhetorical flavor of his position has been misrepresented through accurate but selective quotation of his comments.

After listening to both parts of Verschuur's "Assessing the assessor" video, I think the biggest question that his position poses is this: how does Verschuur know that the PCE is perfect (as to spelling, capitalization, punctuation, italics, and so on)? Likewise, why hesitate to use the word "error" to describe a deviation from this standard (e.g., in part 2, around 1 hr, 36 minutes in, he states: "So that's why I say here that the we're talking about the pure Cambridge edition that not only is the edition correct, which is an editorial form, but then in a copy editing sense of even having no typographical error and resolving edition variation errors. I wouldn't really use the word error so much as they're not error errors like 'oh no that's an error.' I'm just using the word error as in like it's not the actual standard. And I think probably I've consciously tried to not use the word error to mean that because it would lead people like Brian Ross to say, 'Whoa, he said there's errors in PCE printings. Oh no.' Like he's would totally be misrepresenting things to say that. But no, that's not what I'm talking about.")?

Finally, Mr. Verschuur does protest the idea that his Pentecostalist views are the basis for his identification of the PCE.  However, it's hard to come up with any better explanation for Verschuur's seemingly arbitrary identification of 12 marks of the PCE, half of which have to do with the capitalization of the word "Spirit" (or "spirit").  I'm certainly willing to acknowledge that Verschuur's background pre-commitment to Pentecostal/Continuationist views does not necessitate his seemingly arbitrary list of marks of the PCE, but mostly because of how arbitrarily the marks seem to be selected.  For Bryan Ross's arguments how Mr. Verschuur's Pentecostal beliefs influence his determination of which readings are "pure," see Pastor Ross's Lesson 273, "PCE Pillars and Pentecostalism" and accompanying notes (link to notes).

For all his complaining about being cast as extreme, Mr. Verschuur does not hesitate to accuse Pastor Ross: "But Brian Ross is the other extreme of almost compromising with with sort of modernistic thought. Like he'll happily go to the Hebrew and Greek. he'll happily you know sort of try to say well additions don't matter. So he's on the other end. Now I'm talking in the spectrum of what we'll call believing the King James Bible but he's really on an extreme edge and there's plenty of stuff he says is great but he's still like on the edge as far as that." (around 1 hr, 55 minutes into part 2) Imagine the extreme of being happy to go to the Hebrew and Greek! Of course, a few seconds later, Verschuur seems to take it back with "it's not that extreme what he's saying ...."

Update: February 9, 2026.  Pastor Ross has released another lesson with more research (link to notes for Lesson 277)  Also, although it is not new, I take note of a video (audio only) from March 2, 2025, by Mr. Verschuur that attempts to criticize Pastor Ross's position (link to video).  Despite some wavering between calling all other KJVs "impure" and saying that even the most minor departure from his PCE is a "problem" (on the one hand) and saying that the other KJVs are not "invalidated" by his position, the video seems to confirm Ross's analysis of Verschuur's position. 

Friday, December 12, 2025

Six Curious Cases of Improper(?) Pluralization in the King James Version

Two of the reasons I love the KJV are: it tends to be a literal translation and it makes it easy to distinguish between you (singular) and you (plural).  There are times when the King James seems to depart from the literal sense of the underlying Hebrew or Greek.  Sometimes that is for readability.  Other times, the reason is not clear.  In six instances in Deuteronomy, the KJV seems to errantly use a plural pronoun to represent a word that is grammatically singular in Hebrew.  The first instance is Deuteronomy 6:15.  

Deuteronomy 6:15 (For the LORD thy God [is] a jealous God among you) lest the anger of the LORD thy God be kindled against thee, and destroy thee from off the face of the earth.

The corresponding Hebrew is this:

(Deuteronomy 6:15)  כִּי אֵל קַנָּא יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ בְּקִרְבֶּךָ פֶּן־יֶחֱרֶה אַף־יְהוָה אֱלֹהֶיךָ בָּךְ וְהִשְׁמִידְךָ מֵעַל פְּנֵי הָאֲדָמָה׃ ס

The key word is "בְּקִרְבֶּךָ" (Bekirbecha or Bəqirbek̲ā), which the King James translates as "among you".  The same Hebrew word, with the identical inflection, is found in a total of 19 verses in the Hebrew Scriptures (18 other places) using the Westminster Leningrad Codex text as the Hebrew text.   

Internal Consistency

As mentioned above, in six places in Deuteronomy, the word is translated with a plural ("among you") in the KJV, with the the remaining instances all being translated with a singular.

  1. Exo 33:3 "in the midst of thee"
  2. Exo 33:5 "into the midst of thee"
  3. Deu 6:15 "among you" (apparent error)
  4. Deu 7:21 "among you" (apparent error)
  5. Deu 13:1 "among you" (apparent error)
  6. Deu 16:11 "among you" (apparent error)
  7. Deu 17:2 "among you" (apparent error)
  8. Deu 23:16 "among you" (apparent error)
  9. Deu 28:43 "within thee"
  10. Jos 7:13 "in the midst of thee"
  11. Isa 12:6 "in the midst of thee"
  12. Jer 4:14 "within thee"
  13. Hos 11:9 "in the midst of thee"
  14. Amo 5:17 "through thee"
  15. Mic 6:14 "in the midst of thee"
  16. Nah 3:13 "in the midst of thee"
  17. Zep 3:12 "in the midst of thee"
  18. Zep 3:15 "in the midst of thee"
  19. Zep 3:17 "in the midst of thee"

Historical Basis

What is the source of this apparent error? One option is that this is the propagation of an error from the Tyndale translation, or from one of the other pre-KJV revisions of that Tyndale translation.  In this case, all the apparent errors arise in a book that Tyndale translated.

Tyndale

Tyndale translated the Pentateuch and Jonah.  He consistently translated this word as a plural:

  1. Exo 33:3 "among you"  (different from KJV)
  2. Exo 33:5 "apon you" (i.e., upon you) (different from KJV)
  3. Deu 6:15 "among you" (same as KJV)
  4. Deu 7:21 "amog you" (same as KJV)
  5. Deu 13:1 "amonge you" (same as KJV)
  6. Deu 16:11 "amonge you" (same as KJV)
  7. Deu 17:2 "amonge you" (same as KJV) 
  8. Deu 23:16 "amonge you" (same as KJV)
  9. Deu 28:43 "amonge you"  (different from KJV)
As you can see, the KJV departs from the pluralization of the Tyndale text in three places, but maintains the pluralization in the other six places.  

Bishops

The Bishops' Bible had the whole OT, of course.  It had:
  1. Exo 33:3 "amongest you" (different from KJV, essentially Tyndale)
  2. Exo 33:5 "vpon you" (different from KJV, essentially Tyndale)
  3. Deu 6:15 "among you" (same as KJV)
  4. Deu 7:21 "among you" (same as KJV)
  5. Deu 13:1 "among you" (same as KJV)
  6. Deu 16:11 "among you" (same as KJV)
  7. Deu 17:2 "among you" (same as KJV)
  8. Deu 23:16 "among you" (same as KJV)
  9. Deu 28:43 "among you" (different from KJV, same as Tyndale)
  10. Jos 7:13 "among you" (different from KJV)
  11. Isa 12:6 "in the midst of thee" (same as KJV)
  12. Jer 4:14 "with thee" (revised to "Within" in KJV)
  13. Hos 11:9 "in the middest of thee" (Same as KJV)
  14. Amo 5:17 "through thee" (same as KJV)
  15. Mic 6:14 "in the middes of thee" (same as KJV)
  16. Nah 3:13 "in the middest of thee" (same as KJV)
  17. Zep 3:12 "in thee" (expanded to "in the midst of thee" in KJV)
  18. Zep 3:15 "with thee" (revised to "in the midst of thee" in KJV)
  19. Zep 3:17 "in the mids of thee" (same as KJV)

King James Revision Committee

In each of these places, we have notes in the form of an annotated 1602 Bishops' Bible:
Exo 33:3
(F2v)
Exo 33:5
(F2v)
Deu 6:15
(M1r)

Deu 7:21
(M1v)
Deu 13:1
(M4r)
Deu 16:11
(M5r)
Deu 17:2
(M5r)
Deu 23:16
(N1v)
Deu 28:43
(N3r)
Jos 7:13
(O2r)
Isa 12:6
Jer 4:14
Hos 11:9
Amo 5:17
Mic 6:14
Nah 3:13
Zep 3:12
Zep 3:15
Zep 3:17

Subsequent Versions Maintaining Singular/Plural Pronoun Distinction

Nearly all contemporary translations do not make a distinction between second person singular (thee) and second person plural (you), making it hard to say whether contemporary translations agree or disagree with the King James on this point.  However, there are a number of translations subsequent to the King James that maintained the "thee/you" distinction, and that consequently can be used to test this:  
Citation KJV (post-Blaney) Websters 1833 YLT 1862 Darby 1890 ASV 1901
Exodus 33:3 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee in thy midst in the midst of thee in the midst of thee
Exodus 33:5 into the midst of thee into the midst of thee into thy midst into the midst of thee into the midst of thee
Deuteronomy 6:15 among you among you in thy midst in thy midst in the midst of thee
Deuteronomy 7:21 among you among you in thy midst in thy midst in the midst of thee
Deuteronomy 13:1 among you among you in your midst among you in the midst of thee
Deuteronomy 16:11 among you among you in thy midst in thy midst in the midst of thee
Deuteronomy 17:2 among you among you in thy midst in thy midst in the midst of thee
Deuteronomy 23:16 among you among you in thy midst in thy midst in the midst of thee
Deuteronomy 28:43 within thee within thee in thy midst in thy midst in the midst of thee
Joshua 7:13 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee in thy midst in the midst of thee in the midst of thee
Isaiah 12:6 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee in thy midst in the midst of thee in the midst of thee
Jeremiah 4:14 within thee within thee in thy heart... of thy strength within thee within thee
Hosea 11:9 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee In thy midst in the midst of thee in the midst of thee
Amos 5:17 through thee through thee into thy midst through the midst of thee through the midst of thee
Micah 6:14 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee in thy midst in the midst of thee in the midst of thee
Nahum 3:13 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee in thy midst in the midst of thee in the midst of thee
Zephaniah 3:12 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee in thy midst in the midst of thee in the midst of thee
Zephaniah 3:15 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee in thy midst in the midst of thee in the midst of thee
Zephaniah 3:17 in the midst of thee in the midst of thee in thy midst in thy midst in the midst of thee

As you can see, Webster's did not touch the translation of this word in any of the instances.  Young's literal corrected all of the plural cases to singular, except for Deuteronomy 13:1.  Darby did the same as Young's, though not copying Young's. The ASV also corrected Deuteronomy 13:1.  

Conclusion

It seems that the ASV is simply an improvement to the KJV in these six places in Deuteronomy, by providing a more literal rendering of the underlying Hebrew word, which is singular.  Can Tyndale's original translation work be defended on a formal equivalence grounds? Of course. 

In other words, we don't deny that the overall sense of the text is conveyed by the King James Version, even though the translation is not strictly literal here.  It seems unlikely that the sense will be misunderstood by the reader who knows that "thee/thou/thy/thine" are singular and "ye/you/your/yours" are plural.  So, I am not suggesting that this minor translational defect has created any problems.

On the other hand, the King James revision committee revised four other places in the Bishops' Bible where a plural was used for a singular when translating this word, and it would have been more consistent for them to have revised in these places as well.  We have no indication at all from the revisers as to why they did not revise in these places. They may simply not have noticed the issue.  

Oddly enough, King James defenders will defend the plural on the strangest of grounds.

Will Kinney (by way of example of a KJ defender) argued

This is not an error. It is a common thing for God to address the plural "you" along with the singular "thee" or "thou" directed towards each individual within the "you" group of all the Israelites.
As Dr. Peter Van Kleeck explains - “It is singular—“you” is Israel as a unified whole.
...
It is very common for God to go back and forth between the “you” plural and the “thee” or “thou” singular even in the same verse.

If Dr. van Kleeck (Kinney does not specify whether he means Sr. or Jr.) said that, he's speaking loosely at best.  The word, "you," in Tyndale's English is not grammatically singular.  Moreover, taking Deuteronomy 6:15 as an example, in the same verse "thee" is used of Israel as a unified whole:

Deuteronomy 6:15 (For the LORD thy God [is] a jealous God among you) lest the anger of the LORD thy God be kindled against thee, and destroy thee from off the face of the earth.

So, while I agree that the "you" in Deuteronomy 6:15 refers to Israel as a unified whole, it does so using a plural pronoun (as well as using a preposition, "among," which requires a plural object).

God did not give Moses the King James, he gave Moses the Hebrew.  In the Hebrew, in this verse, God does not "go back and forth" as Kinney describes it: God consistently uses the singular.   

I have suggested before and will increasingly suggest that we need to improve the King James Version.  This is not a major error, or one that seems likely to me to be of any doctrinal significance.  Nevertheless, it is a less literal translation of the Hebrew text.  

Comparison to Ancient Versions

Ancient versions are not binding.  Nevertheless, we are confident that the King James translators were aware of the Septuagint and Vulgate versions and that they at least considered them in some way in their translation process.  It is trickier to confirm their handling of the word, because we are not always sure whether they had precisely verbatim the same underlying Hebrew text and because we are not sure that they are always woodenly literal in their translation style.  The Vulgate and Septuagint texts handle this word thus:

  1. Exo 33:3 "in the midst of thee" | tecum | μετὰ σοῦ
  2. Exo 33:5 "into the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐφ᾿ ὑμᾶς
  3. Deu 6:15 "among you" | in medio tui | ἐν σοί
  4. Deu 7:21 "among you" | in medio tui | ἐν σοί
  5. Deu 13:1 "among you" | in medio tui | [13:2] ἐν σοὶ 
  6. Deu 16:11 "among you" | vobiscum | ἐν ὑμῖν
  7. Deu 17:2 "among you" | *phrase omitted* | *phrase omitted*
  8. Deu 23:16 "among you" | tecum | [23:17] μετὰ σοῦ 
  9. Deu 28:43 "within thee" | tecum | ἐν σοί
  10. Jos 7:13 "in the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐν ὑμῖν
  11. Isa 12:6 "in the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐν μέσῳ αὐτῆς
  12. Jer 4:14 "within thee" | in te | ἐν σοὶ
  13. Hos 11:9 "in the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐν σοὶ 
  14. Amo 5:17 "through thee" | in medio tui | διὰ μέσου σου
  15. Mic 6:14 "in the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐν σοὶ 
  16. Nah 3:13 "in the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐν σοί
  17. Zep 3:12 "in the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐν σοὶ 
  18. Zep 3:15 "in the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐν μέσῳ σου 
  19. Zep 3:17 "in the midst of thee" | in medio tui | ἐν σοί

As you can see, in the vast majority of the cases, both the Vulgate and the Septuagint translate using a singular.  For example, among all the verse, the only time that the Vulgate uses a plural is Deuteronomy 16:11.  The Septuagint also uses a plural in Deuteronomy 16:11 as well as using a plural in Exodus 33:5 and Joshua 7:13.  Interestingly, the Septuagint seems to change to third person in Isaiah 12:6.  In Deuteronomy 17:2, there seems to be either a shorter base text or a translation that combines two phrases in Hebrew into one.

One word of caution about the Vulgate and Septuagint in the list of above.  I have completed this section in a hurry - please verify before re-posting.

Based on this analysis, only one of the six places defensible on the basis of ancient translations would be Deuteronomy 16:11.  However, if one defends on that basis, the other five places still need improvement.

N.B. Thanks to Mike Tisdell for bringing one of these verses to my attention, leading to the article.

Update: 

Christopher Yetzer offered the following reply:

I wouldn't call those an error for several reasons. 1. thee/thou/thine were already archaic, so to follow current standards wouldn't necessarily be an error. 2. "you" can refer collectively as a unit. 3. They never made the claim to follow this supposed principle throughout the Bible (similar to italics). 4. Possibly different translators working on different sections caused some inconsistencies, but not errors. Inconsistencies are not errors in and of themselves (consider amongst/among or Easter). If both renderings are possible, than neither is an error. 5. Several of the ones in Deuteronomy are in close proximity to "the Lord thy God." Possibly they felt that this was a good combination for English in those places. 6. Previous Bible translations had "among you" in more places than the KJV. For instance your first one on the list Exodus 33:3, Tyndale, Great, Matthews and the Bishops all had "among you".

Keep in mind that Yetzer qualifies his entire set of arguments by saying that he would not call those six places an "error."  Whether they are a called an error or not is less interesting to me than whether there is room for improvement in the King James version when it comes to providing a highly literal translation of the underlying Hebrew text.  

As to Yetzer's first argument, the premise that using the second person singular and second person plural distinctly was "already archaic" may have a little merit, despite Shakespeare famously distinctly using "thee" and "you" in literature contemporary to the King James revision and in literature intended for popular consumption.  In support of Yetzer's idea, a 1660 Quaker book reports people being beat for using "thou" to address other people (link to source).  This premise, even if sound in itself, nevertheless would not support Yetzer's conclusion.  After all, the King James revisers did not generally revise the text away from using "thee" distinctly from "you." Furthermore, this wording is not traceable to the King James revisers, but instead is traceable to Tyndale, and the use of "thee" was not already archaic in the time of Tyndale. Tyndale's text, before and after the King James revisers handled it, contained a mixture of use of "thee" and "you."

As to Yetzer's second argument, once again, the premise that "you" can refer to a collective unit is not especially controversial.  However, the referent of the Hebrew word translated by "you" in (for example) Deuteronomy 6:15 is the same as the referent of the Hebrew words translated by "thee" in the same verse.  The switch between singular and plural pronouns is - at best - an unnecessary and confusing choice.  In particular, there is an available English way to translate the Hebrew word, namely, "in the midst of thee," without introducing a plural pronoun to refer to the collective unit.  Switching the number from singular to plural does not serve any apparent reason, given that it is not necessary to the task of translation.

As to Yetzer's third argument, once again, we can generally agree with the stated premise (although it's not perfectly clear which "principle" Yetzer is targeting).  Whether the King James revisers claimed to follow the principle of literal translation throughout the Bible or not, this is a less literal translation than another available translation, namely, "in the midst of thee" or "in thy midst." Additionally, whether the King James revisers claimed to follow the principle of using "thee" for the singular and "you" for the plural, that was the convention in the time of Tyndale, and it is the most obvious explanation of the King James revisers' correction of the Bishops' Bible in at least four places just relating to this word. Indeed, inconsistently following the principle of using "you" only for plural undermines the primary benefit of having the thee/you distinction present in the text. 

As to Yetzer's fourth argument, the first Westminster company is thought to have had the primary charge of revising the section of the Old Testament from Genesis to 2 Kings (See also, Alistair McGrath's "In the Beginning").  All six of the oversights and all four of the valid corrections come from this section.  So, it is less likely that this came from a difference of translational methodology or style.  Inconsistency is excellent evidence of error, even if there are cases where inconsistency is due to something other than error.  In this instance, however, difference of translation committee does not adequately explain the discrepancy.

Nested in Yetzer's fourth argument is the suggestion that if both ways of translating are valid translations, than neither can be an error.  In principle, we could grant, some Hebrew word could be translated by two English words that are precise synonyms of one another (perhaps "amongst" and "among" are an example of this), and consequently equally good word choices.  On the other hand, "thee" and "you" are not precise synonyms in the English in which the King James is written.  In this instance, the use of "in the midst of thee" is clearly superior to "among you" in terms of exposing the fact that the underlying Hebrew is continuing to use the singular.  This may be only a small advantage, but it is an advantage.  Moreover, this small advantage also seems to be the justification for four changes to the Bishops' Bible with respect to this specific Hebrew word.  

As to Yetzer's fifth argument, the argument seems to premised on speculation that appears unconnected to the wording choice selected.  Yetzer wrote: "Several of the ones in Deuteronomy are in close proximity to "the Lord thy God." Possibly they felt that this was a good combination for English in those places." First, it's unclear what measure of "good" Yetzer has in mind.  Respectful?  Something else? Of the 19 places where bekirbecha appears, "Lord thy God" (as a phrase) appears in the KJV only in Deuteronomy 6:15, 7:21, 16:11, 17:2, and Zephaniah 3:17.  Furthermore, it is only directly proximate in Deuteronomy 7:21 and Zephaniah 3:17.  So, even if we were to assume that it was somehow better as being more reverential or the like (which I don't agree with for even one second), this standard is not followed with consistency.

As to Yetzer's sixth argument, his premise is part of the argument presented above.  The King James revisers properly corrected the Bishops' Bible in four other places, but failed to do so here.  This is similar (but more severe) than their failure to fully correct the archaic usage of "Easter" found in a few places in the Bishops' Bible where the meaning was "Passover." 

*** Further Update

Yetzer provided a still further reply, which I will quote in chunks and respond to piece by piece.

I think you define "error" differently than most. I forget if you describe "Easter" as an error or not? Would you say that you are consistent and if modern Bibles translate using slightly different language, you would still call it an error, or is it only the KJV?

If you read the original post, you will notice that I use phrases like "apparent error".  Rather than focusing on whether it is an error or merely an apparent error, I focus on whether it is a translation that can be improved upon.  The answer to my question, of course, is "yes, there is room for improvement."

It's obviously not an error in translation by the King James first Westminster company, for the simple reason that it was not their translation: it was Tyndale's translation in form adopted by the Bishops' Bible and untouched.  Nevertheless, it is reasonable classified as an editorial oversight like the editorial oversight at Acts 12:4 where the King James revisers failed to update "Easter" (which meant "Passover" when Tyndale originally translated Acts - see discussion here, for example), despite updating the English of John 11:55 and 1 Esdras 1:12 (among other places).  The editorial oversight is more significant in this instance than in that instance because (1) there is evidence of continued usage of "Easter" as meaning "Passover" after 1611, (2) there is only one such oversight when it comes to Pascha but there are six oversights when it comes to bekirbecha, and (3) "you" expressed (in English) the wrong number of the word (i.e., plural rather than singular) , rather than being merely a potentially misleading rendering in 1611.

From my standpoint, the Tyndale translation itself is relatively modern.  So, I don't find "modern" a helpful way of distinguishing Bibles that are even more modern than the King James.  However, of course, Yetzer is free to use whatever designation he wants.  

Additionally, framing this in terms of "slightly different language" does not capture my concern.  The issue isn't that the translation does not capture full nuance of the underlying language, but that the translation is less literal than a reasonable alternative translation without any good justification for not being literal in this instance.

Finally, whether I'm consistent or not is more about me than about the issue.  However, I'm quite willing to criticize other revisions of Tyndale's translation than the King James.  For example, in my original article, I point out that of all the subsequent revisions of the Tyndale translation (i.e., Webster's, Young's, Darby's, and the ASV) that I reviewed in the post, only the ASV fully corrected this issue.  Moreover, on this particular issue, most of the translations that Yetzer considers "modern" fail me, because they simply make no effort to represent the difference between you singular and you plural.

Yetzer continued:

I agree that there are inconsistencies in the KJV. I am uninterested in changing anything. Most people who want to change things are not using it anyways. I believe any further changes is a waste of time and unproductive or helpful to those who want to have the KJV as an English standard. I have talked a lot about this, but deciding who would do it and gaining acceptance across a broad range of users is not going to be possible at this point. Even the changes which took places after the initial printing were minor and attempted to keep the text as close as possible to the 1611.

There are, of course, numerous successful later revisions of the Tyndale translation, including not only the New King James Version but also more significant revisions stemming from the Revised Version from the late 1800s.  While there are many departures, one still sees the influence of the Tyndale translation on translations like the ESV.

However, I think we can provide a better improvement to the KJV than that represented by the ESV.  Whether it will be commercial successful or not, I leave for other folks.

Yetzer continued:    

According to Nikolaos Lavidas’ 2021 book The Diachrony of Written Language Contact: A Contrastive Approach published by Brill, he states, “Tyndale’s texts, translations and polemical texts, contain examples of syntactic archaisms (Canon 2016), that is, borrowings and re-introductions of obsolete forms from an earlier period of the language—what one would characterize as evidence of a type of written contact with earlier forms of English. One such example is the use of the early/archaic second person singular and plural pronouns in Tyndale’s texts: the second person plural pronoun had begun to appear in all, singular and plural, contexts in Early Middle English. Tyndale used the verbal forms for second singular and plural number productively, as well as the distinction between the subject pronoun ye and the object pronoun you, following earlier texts. However, the first attestations of the nominative you, instead of ye, appeared in the 14th century and was productively used in the literary language by the 1540s.” [TF has conformed the quotation to p. 41 of the book] 

This quotation points out that Tyndale adopted the rules that were (according to Lavidas) beginning to go out of style.  In accordance with those rules, the six places noted above should be translated "in the midst of thee" or "in thy midst." If not for those rules, the four places that were corrected by the King James revisers should not have been corrected.   One cannot have it both ways.

Incidentally, as noted by Vaughn, Canon refers to Elizabeth Bell Canon, “Buried Treasure in the Tyndale Corpus: Innovations and Archaisms,” Anglica, an International Journal of English Studies, 2016, 25/2, pp. 151-165.

Yetzer continued again:

and “A careful study of the court records of the northern English city of Durham suggests that “you” had replaced “thou” as the normal form of address in spoken English by about 1575. The decision to use “thou” was a departure from the norm...” McGrath, Alister. “The Story of the King James Bible” in Translation That Openeth the Window. Society of Biblical Literature. 2009. p. 13

McGrath said the same thing in his 2008 book, "In the Beginning" referenced above.  The quotation continues in this way (pp. 267): "The decision to use "thou" was a departure from the norm, intended to make a point--for example, in the following exchange between a social inferior and his superior" [followed by an exchange in which the social inferior uses "ye" and "yours" whereas the social superior uses "thou" and "thy"].

I would respectfully push back on McGrath on this point, at least in that the King James revisers were revising an existing translation that already had the the thou/you distinction.  Perhaps they intentionally wanted the Bible to sound more upper class, but they inherited a Bible with the distinction present.

Furthermore, as with the material from Lavidas, if the translators did decide to maintain the distinction consciously to make a point, then they should have correctly followed that distinction in these six passages.  If they were not doing so, then they should not have altered the four other passages.  One cannot have it both ways.

Yetzer continued: 

3. The principle I intended was making a difference between the archaic thee/thou/thine and you/your/yours.

Lavidas and McGrath argue that this was indeed a principle adopted and the evidence seems to support their contention that it was an intentional use of the distinction to convey information from the underlying text into English.    

Yetzer continued:

4. There are some people who hypothesize that the committees were more divided than normally considered.

It's certainly possible that the first Westminster company did not go through the text collectively, but rather did so individually.  This would explain the inconsistent revision due to a lesser translator handling the six verses where correction should have been offered.  This explanation, however, comes at the expense of the usual line of argument that the King James revision should be given huge weight because of the large number of involved translators.

In other words, it may well be that in practice if one of the translators charged with revising a particular verse proposed a revision, the fellows in his company checked his work to see if the revision was good.  However, if no revision was proposed, there was nothing to check, and consequently no check was made, leading to editorial oversight problems like these six oversights.

While I find Yetzer's proposal intuitively pleasing, I note that would imply that the companies did not strictly follow the guidance provided by Archbishop Bancroft.  This would also mean that while we might place higher credence in translation work that is original to the 1611 King James revision of the Tyndale Bible, we should not place the same credence in passages like these six where there was no original work by the committee. 

Yetzer then concluded by referring to an article in which he argued that the 1602 Bishops' Bible that I have excerpted above was not from the KJV translators.  Timothy Berg, on the other hand, has an article that I found more persuasive on the point (see here).

Tuesday, March 12, 2024

Will Kinney's Space Argument

Will Kinney sometimes argues that one of the signs that the King James is the perfect word is that a portion of it was read in space by the Apollo 8 astronauts.  In a recent debate he stated:

"... reasons why the King James Bible is God's inerrant book and there are many reasons not just Blind Faith but there are a lot of reasons historical things that God has done with it in history it's the only Bible read from from outer space that'll never happen again they'll go up and read out of the Bible not going to happen not in today's society" 

(source)


I'm sure Will means well, but may be unaware of the fact that during the Apollo 11 mission, the Vatican had the following placed on the Moon:


 And at the same time, Israel had the following placed on the Moon:

(source of the above clips)

In 1996, the Torah was read in Hebrew in Space (link to source with photo).  Likewise, in 2003, Ilan Ramon brought a miniatured version of scriptures with him to space (link to source) during the final mission of the Columbia

It's a terrible, terrible argument that Will offers.  Love the brother, but avoid the argument.

Monday, February 05, 2024

KJV Improvement - Satyrs

 Satyrs in the Bible? (source of image at right)

Isaiah 13:21 But wild beasts of the desert shall lie there; and their houses shall be full of doleful creatures; and owls shall dwell there, and satyrs (וּשְׂעִירִים) shall dance there.

Isaiah 34:14 The wild beasts of the desert shall also meet with the wild beasts of the island, and the satyr (וְשָׂעִיר) shall cry to his fellow; the screech owl also shall rest there, and find for herself a place of rest.

D.A. Waite, Jr.'s "4,114 Definitions from the Defined King James Bible," provides the following definition for satyr:

in mythology: a minor woodland deity (companion of Bacchus) depicted as having the pointed ears, legs, and short horns of a goat, the head and body of a man, and a fondness for unrestrained revelry and lechery.

 By contrast, Philip P. Kapusta's "A King James Dictionary," defines Satyr as "He-goat."

BibleHub and BlueLetterBible offer, as one option, "satyr, may refer to a demon possessed goat like the swine of Gadara (Mt. 8:30-32)."

Will Kinney (responding to John Ankerburg) has written (link to source):

SATYRS

The word translated as satyr is the Hebrew word sa’ir #8163. It has several meanings, including “hairy” – “Esau my brother is a HAIRY man” Genesis 27:11; “goat” – “lay his hand upon the head of the GOAT” Leviticus 4:24; “devils” – “they shall no more offer their sacrifices unto DEVILS” Leviticus 17:7; “satyrs” – “and SATYRS shall dance there” Isaiah 13:21, and “rough” – “the ROUGH goat is the king of Greecia” Daniel 8:21.

The word satyrs is found twice in the King James Bible. In Scripture, the satyr seems to be a hairy, goat-like devil or demon, and is portrayed as a real spiritual entity, and not as a mythological creature.

Isaiah 13:21 “But wild beasts of the desert shall lie there; and their houses shall be full of doleful creatures; and owls shall dwell there, and SATYRS shall dance there.”

Isaiah 34:14 “The wild beasts of the desert shall also meet with the wild beasts of the island, and the SATYR shall cry to his fellow; the screech owl also shall rest there, and find for herself a place of rest.”

Not only does the King James Bible use the word satyr in the Isaiah passages but so also do the following Bible versions. The Geneva Bible 1599, Webster’s 1833 translation, the Revised Standard Version 1952, the Jewish Publication Society 1917 translation, the Hebrew Publishing Company of New York version of 1936, the Jerusalem Bible 1968, the New American Bible 1970, the New Jerusalem Bible 1985, Lamsa’s 1936 translation of the Syriac Peshitta, the Greek Septuagint, the KJV 21st Century version, and the Third Millenium Bible.

The Greek Septuagint (LXX) – Regardless of when you think this Greek translation of the Old Testament was made or by whom, this version is chock-full of satyrs, devils, dragons, and unicorns. The word unicorns is found in Numberbs 23:22; Deuteronomy 33:17; Job 39:9; Psalms 22:21; 29:6; 78:69, and 92:10.

The satyrs are mentioned four times in the Greek Septuagint version. In Isaiah 13:22; 34:11 and 34:14 we read: “satyrs shall dwell in it…devils shall dance there and satyrs dwell there…and devils shall meet with satyrs…there shall satyrs rest.”

Revised Standard Version 1952

Leviticus 17:7 “So they shall no more slay their sacrifices for SATYRS, after whom they play the harlot. This shall be a statute for ever to them throughout their generations.”

Not only does the RSV translate this word as Satyrs in Leviticus 17:7, but so also do the 1917 Jewish Publication Society translation, Moffatt’s New Translation 1922, An American Translation by Smith and Goodspeed 1931, the New American Bible 1970, Jerusalem Bible 1966, and the New Jerusalem Bible 1985.

2 Chronicles 11:15 “and he appointed his own priests for the high places, and for the SATYRS, and for the calves which he had made.”

Isaiah 13:21 “But wild beasts will lie down there, and its houses will be full of howling creatures; there ostriches will dwell, and there SATYRS will dance.”

What about a modern “evangelical” version? Well, surprise! Let’s take a look at the New American Standard Version 1972-1995 Update.

2 Chronicles 11:15 “He set up priests of his own for the high places, for the SATYRS and for the calves which he had made.”

Smith’s Bible Dictionary: Satyr: Isaiah 13:21; 34:14. The Hebrew word signifies “hairy” or “rough,” and is frequently applied to “he-goats.” In the passages cited it probably refers to demons of woods and desert places. Comp. Leviticus 17:7; 2 Chronicles 11:15.

Even among the various other modern versions there is little agreement on how to translate this term. What we see in the various versions is a wide variety of translations that include the following: “shaggy creatures (Rotherham), goats, goat-demons (NRSV), goad idols (ESV), demoniacs, hairy ones (Darby), demons (New English Bible 1970), wild goats, and evil spirits (Bible in Basic English 1970).

...

So, regarding the correctness of the translation of SATYR, Mr. Ankerberg can think what he wants, but there are a lot of Bible scholars who differ with his opinion. Again, the Bible versions that sometimes translate this Hebrew word as SATYR include both Jewish translations of 1917 and 1936, the Geneva Bible, Moffatt’s New Translation 1922, An American Translation by Smith and Goodspeed 1931, the New American Bible 1970, Jerusalem Bible 1966, and the New Jerusalem Bible 1985, the Revised Standard Version 1952, Webster’s 1833, the KJV 21st Century, the Third Millenium Bible, and the NASB – New American Standard 1995 Update version. ...

The word in question does come from a root meaning "hairy." (this is from HALOT)  

As a noun, it refers to a goat (same source):

It is true that it has sometimes had a demonic interpretation (same source):

Gesenius has:

Here are the main problems with Will's response/argument:

1) While I appreciate that Will knows what word the King James translators were trying to translate, nevertheless his usage information obscures the distribution of the semantic range, even taking the KJV as a guide (source):

The KJV translates Strong's H8163 in the following manner: kid (28x), goat (24x), devil (2x), satyr (2x), hairy (2x), rough (1x).

Notice that of the 59 uses, three are adjectival ("hairy/rough"), and of the 56 that are nouns, 52 are some form of goat.  That leaves the two places where the word is mistranslated as "satyr" (Isaiah 13:21 and 34:14) and the two places where the word is mistranslated as "devils" (Leviticus 17:7 and 2 Chronicles 11:15):

Leviticus 17:7 And they shall no more offer their sacrifices unto devils, after whom they have gone a whoring. This shall be a statute for ever unto them throughout their generations.

2 Chronicles 11:15 And he ordained him priests for the high places, and for the devils, and for the calves which he had made.

We can discuss the correct reading of those passages another time.  Nevertheless, for now we turn to the two "satyr" passages.

2) Will's claim about what the satyr "seems to be" is mostly wishful thinking.  Will claims:

The word satyrs is found twice in the King James Bible. In Scripture, the satyr seems to be a hairy, goat-like devil or demon, and is portrayed as a real spiritual entity, and not as a mythological creature.

Let's actually examine the Satyr passages in context.

1) Isaiah 13:17-22

Behold, I will stir up the Medes against them, which shall not regard silver; and as for gold, they shall not delight in it. Their bows also shall dash the young men to pieces; and they shall have no pity on the fruit of the womb; their eye shall not spare children. And Babylon, the glory of kingdoms, the beauty of the Chaldees' excellency, shall be as when God overthrew Sodom and Gomorrah. It shall never be inhabited, neither shall it be dwelt in from generation to generation: neither shall the Arabian pitch tent there; neither shall the shepherds make their fold there. But wild beasts of the desert shall lie there; and their houses shall be full of doleful creatures; and owls shall dwell there, and satyrs shall dance there. And the wild beasts of the islands shall cry in their desolate houses, and dragons in their pleasant palaces: and her time is near to come, and her days shall not be prolonged. 

This is the true (and already fulfilled) prophecy of the Medes' destruction of Babylon.  While I would argue that there are number of mistranslations in this passage (such as "wild beasts of the islands," which should be "hyenas" and "dragons," which should be "jackals"), still even with the mistranslations, it is already abundantly apparent from the context that the word mistranslated as "satyrs" is one of the litany of wild animals. 

There is nothing from the context to tell one that this is hairy, that this is goat-like, that this is a devil or that this is a demon.  The fact that this is a hairy animal (i.e. a goat) comes from the etymology of the word itself, not from the context.  There is nothing contextual to suggest a devil or demon.  

Let's look at the next verse in context:

2) Isaiah 34:1-17 (the entire chapter)

Come near, ye nations, to hear; and hearken, ye people: let the earth hear, and all that is therein; the world, and all things that come forth of it. For the indignation of the LORD is upon all nations, and his fury upon all their armies: he hath utterly destroyed them, he hath delivered them to the slaughter. Their slain also shall be cast out, and their stink shall come up out of their carcases, and the mountains shall be melted with their blood. And all the host of heaven shall be dissolved, and the heavens shall be rolled together as a scroll: and all their host shall fall down, as the leaf falleth off from the vine, and as a falling fig from the fig tree. For my sword shall be bathed in heaven: behold, it shall come down upon Idumea, and upon the people of my curse, to judgment. The sword of the LORD is filled with blood, it is made fat with fatness, and with the blood of lambs and goats, with the fat of the kidneys of rams: for the LORD hath a sacrifice in Bozrah, and a great slaughter in the land of Idumea. And the unicorns shall come down with them, and the bullocks with the bulls; and their land shall be soaked with blood, and their dust made fat with fatness. For it is the day of the LORD'S vengeance, and the year of recompences for the controversy of Zion. And the streams thereof shall be turned into pitch, and the dust thereof into brimstone, and the land thereof shall become burning pitch. It shall not be quenched night nor day; the smoke thereof shall go up for ever: from generation to generation it shall lie waste; none shall pass through it for ever and ever. But the cormorant and the bittern shall possess it; the owl also and the raven shall dwell in it: and he shall stretch out upon it the line of confusion, and the stones of emptiness. They shall call the nobles thereof to the kingdom, but none shall be there, and all her princes shall be nothing. And thorns shall come up in her palaces, nettles and brambles in the fortresses thereof: and it shall be an habitation of dragons, and a court for owls. The wild beasts of the desert shall also meet with the wild beasts of the island, and the satyr shall cry to his fellow; the screech owl also shall rest there, and find for herself a place of rest. There shall the great owl make her nest, and lay, and hatch, and gather under her shadow: there shall the vultures also be gathered, every one with her mate. Seek ye out of the book of the LORD, and read: no one of these shall fail, none shall want her mate: for my mouth it hath commanded, and his spirit it hath gathered them. And he hath cast the lot for them, and his hand hath divided it unto them by line: they shall possess it for ever, from generation to generation shall they dwell therein.

Once again, there are multiple mistranslations in the passage, such as "unicorns" for "Reems" (i.e. wild oxen), "dragons" for jackals, and "wild beasts of the island" for hyenas.  Nevertheless, once again from the context we can see that the so-called "satyr" is amongst a list of wild animals that will inhabit the wasteland in the aftermath of the destruction.

Contrary to Will, there is nothing from the context to tell one that this is hairy, that this is goat-like, that this is a devil or that this is a demon.  The fact that this is a hairy animal (i.e. a goat) comes from the etymology of the word itself, not from the context.  There is nothing contextual to suggest a devil or demon.  

What justification can be there be for throwing in the name of a mythical animal from Roman mythology?  The Hebrew word שָׂעִיר (śāʿîr) does sound a bit like "satyr," particularly with an accent prone toward T-glottalization (i.e. replacing a central "T" sound with a glottal stop).  

This seems to be a false cognate.

Will points out that some other translations have agreed that the word in Isaiah 13:21 and Isaiah 34:14 should be satyr(s), in one of two ways: some translations used "satyr" in those places (e.g. KJ21, BRG, GNV, JUB, AKJV, NABRE, RSV, and RSVCE) and some translations have used "satyr" either in other places generally or in other places that the same Hebrew word is used.   

The Jewish Bible uses "satyrs" at Isaiah 13:21 and "satyr" at Isaiah 34:14 despite correcting other mistranslations.  Why?  The reason is that there is Jewish tradition that these animals are, in fact, demons (see Rashi's commentary at the links).  

Moreover, the Etymology of "satyr" is an interesting reading (link to source).

satyr (n.)

late 14c., satire, "one of a type of woodland deities part human or animal; demigod or spirit of the air or woods, companion of Bacchus," from Old French satire and directly from Latin satyrus, from Greek satyros, a word of unknown origin. "The etymology of [satyros] is unknown. A number of hypotheses have been proposed, but none of them makes sense ..." [Beekes].

In pre-Roman Greek art, a man-like being with the tail and ears of a horse; the conception of a being part man part goat is due to Roman sculptors, who seem to have assimilated them to the fauns of native mythology. In some English bibles the word is used curiously to translate Hebrew se'irim, a type of hairy monster superstitiously believed to inhabit deserts.

In Middle English the word could mean also a kind of ape supposed to live in Africa or Arabia (late 14c.), after a use of Greek satyros, and the name was later applied by zoologists to the orangutan (1690s). From 1781 as "very lecherous or lascivious person." Related: Satyress.

Perhaps more interesting than this is commentary by a Christian scholar who inherited the King James translation and was also familiar with Jewish tradition.  

John Gill explains (Commentary on Isaiah 13:21):

and satyrs shall dance there; a sort of monstrous creatures with the ancients, painted half men and half goats; the upper part of them like men, except the horns on their heads, and the lower parts like goats, and all over hairy; and the word here used signifies hairy; and is used for goats, and sometimes for devils, either because they have appeared in this form, as Kimchi says, to them that believe them; or because they, by their appearance, inject such horror in men, as cause their hair to stand upright: hence the Targum, Jarchi, and Kimchi, interpret it of devils here; and so the Septuagint version, and those that follow it, the Syriac and Arabic, render it, "and demons shall dance there": with this agrees the account of mystical Babylon, Revelation 18:2.

John Gill again (Commentary on Isaiah 34:14)

and the satyr shall cry to his fellow; or the "hairy" one [FN r]; from which word the goat has its name; and these creatures are described by the ancients as half goats and half men; of which Isaiah 13:21. The Targum renders it demons; and with this well agrees the account of Babylon or Rome as fallen, that it shall be the habitation of devils, and the hold of every foul spirit, Revelation 18:2:

[FN r: שעיר "pilosus", a שער "capillus."] 

Gill's comments here acknowledge the indebtedness to Jewish tradition.  Gill makes an interesting comparison to Revelation 18:2 (a place where this is an interesting textual issue that we've talked about elsewhere), which mentions fallen Babylon as having become the habitation of devils and foul spirits.  This is, perhaps, the strongest argument one could mount for a demonic interpretation of Isaiah 13:21 and Isaiah 34:14.  On the other hand, if this argument is accepted, then it at least equally dictates in favor of translating Lilith (a night demon in Jewish tradition) in place of "screech owl" in Isa 34:14.  Gill again:

By the name "Lilith", it appears to be a night bird, which flies and is heard in the night. The Jews call a she demon by this name, which, they say [FN s], has a human face, and has wings, and destroys children as soon as born; and therefore the Jews, especially in Germany, write upon the four corners of the bed of a new mother, Adam, Eve, out Lilith [FN t]; the same with the Lamia of the Romans; and so the Vulgate Latin here renders it.

[FN s: T. Bab. Nidda, fol. 24. 2.]

[FN t: Vid. Buxtorf. Lex. Rab. col. 1140.]

But, of course, the woes of "mystical Babylon" to which Gill appeals may be paralleled by the actual animals that inhabited actual Babylon, without appeal to a secondary meaning.

One assumes that the King James translators were likely influenced by Calvin's commentaries.

Calvin's Commentary on Isaiah 13 (source):

It will not be amiss to explain what follows about Satyrs or Pans, who are called by the French, according to the various dialects of the provinces, sometimes Luittons, sometimes Follets, and sometimes Loups-garouz. As Satan deludes men by various tricks, so he gives to them various names. It is certain that ציים (tziim) is often used in Scripture for devils; and it is derived from ציה, (tziyah,) which means dryness, or, a desert, as איים (iyim) is derived from אים, (ayam,) which means to terrify. The Devil performs strange tricks by means of Fauns and Satyrs, and on that account their names are given to him.

The design of the Prophet is to show that the solitude will be so great, that not only will the place be deserted by men, but even the devils will there deceive by their tricks; for the devils avail themselves of the tendency of solitary places to produce terror. As enemies and robbers, by sallying forth from concealed lurking-places, frighten men the more, so devils take advantage of the night and the darkness, and of places distant from the view of men, that they may be able to excite greater terror in those who are naturally timorous.

Calvin's Commentary on Isaiah 34 (source):

14. And the wild beasts shall meet with the satyrs. These animals are thought by some commentators to mean fauns, by others screechowls or goblins, and by others satyrs; and it is not fully agreed what is the exact meaning of the Hebrew words; but it would serve no good purpose to give ourselves much uneasiness about them, for it is quite enough if we understand the meaning and design of the Prophet. He draws a picture of frightful desolation, as if he had said that Idumea shall be destroyed so as to be without inhabitants, and instead of men it shall be inhabited by frightful beasts. This reward is most justly reaped by the ambition of those who built costly palaces to be, as we have already said, monuments of their name and reputation. Yet this is also a punishment threatened against the cruelty of a wicked nation, which was eagerly bent on the oppression of neighbours and brethren.

Though we cannot absolutely determine whether the Prophet means witches, or goblins, or satyrs and fauns, yet it is universally agreed that these words denote animals which have the shape of men. We see also what various delusions are practiced by Satan, what phantoms and hideous monsters are seen, and what sounds and noises are heard. But of these we have already spoken under the thirteenth chapter. 

Thankfully, the universal agreement about the meaning of the words, thankfully, has long since lapsed, if it ever was universal.