Isidore on Hebrew as the Original Language

Isidore of Seville (560-636) is one of the most influential western theologians of the late patristic period.  He was a noted linguist, but his views do lean toward the idea that Hebrew was the language spoken in the garden of Eden by Adam and Eve, and that all the language confusion at Babylon was various departures from Hebrew.  Here are some examples of his statements on this point:

Etymologies, Book IX, number 1:

Language diversity began after the flood, during the construction of the tower. The arrogance of that tower divided human society: different words had the same meaning. Earlier, all nations used one language: Hebrew. The patriarchs and prophets used it for speech, as well as for their holy writings. ...

Etymologies, Book X, number 191:

Nugas is a Hebrew word. It is set out in the books of the Prophets, where Zephaniah (3.18) says, Nugas, qui a lege recesserunt (the sorrowful, who have withdrawn from the law), enabling us to know that the mother of all languages is Hebrew.

(I should note that the parenthetical is from the translator.)

Etymologies, Book XII, number 2:

The pagans gave names to each animal, in their own languages. Adam assigned names using neither Latin, Greek, or the barborous tongues of the pagans, but Hebrew, the universal language before the flood.

I have recently heard folks begin to discuss this view with the label "Edenics."  Having only found that term in Wikipedia dictionaries, I'm a little reluctant to endorse it as having an established meaning, but - at any rate - this view by Isidore seems to fit the description of that label.

It's interesting to note that Isidore also makes an argument for the use of multiple versions (in multiple languages) based on the potential obscurity of the Scriptural language.  

Etymologies, Book IX, number 3:

The sacred languages are pre-eminent throughout the world: Hebrew, Greek, and Latin. These three languages were used by Pilate to write the charge <"King of the Jews"> against the Lord at the top of the cross. The obscurity of the Holy Scriptures, makes knowledge of these languages necessary. When the wording of one language creates doubt about a word or meaning, there is recourse to another.

The above translations come from Priscilla Throop's translation (2005 for books I-X and 2006 for books XI to XX). 

Rhinoceros in Biblical and Cognate Languages

The evidence that the Hebrew word, Re'em, refers to the Aurochs is overwhelming.  Nevertheless, there are some who maintain the view that seems to have first originated with the second century translator of the Old Testament, known as Aquila of Sinope.  Apparently Aquila was a proselyte to Judaism, and a disciple of Rabbi Akiba.

As a side note, I found this fascinating detail regarding Masoretic vowel tradition in the Jewish Encylopedia entry on Aquila:

It is interesting to note that Aquila does not agree with the Masoretic punctuation in pointing the names of heathen gods (e.g.,  and , Amos v. 26) with the vowels of  ("abomination").

(source)

If this accurate, it confirms that the pointing of the Tetragrammaton with the vowels for "Lord" is similarly a way of highlighting the truly divine, rather than being the actual vowels.

Returning to our question, there is a Greek word for rhinoceros, it's ρινόκερως (rinokeros).  That's the word Aquila used, although the Septuagint did not.  Our English word is directly taken from Latin rhinoceros, which got it from the Greek.

The modern Hebrew word for rhinoceros is "קַרנַף" (kar'NUF).  However, the word karnuf was invented in the 20th century by Joseph Klausner, using the Hebrew words keren (horn) and af (nose).

Turning to other related languages, I found two main branches: one from the Sanskrit, the other from the Ge'ez. 

Ge'ez

• Ge'ez ሐሪሥ, ሐሪስ (ḥäriś, ḥäris, “rhinoceros”) 
• Arabic حَرِيش‎ (ḥarīš, “rhinoceros”) (apparently derived from Ge'ez)
• Other languages related closely to Ge'ez have similar words.

Sanskrit

On the other hand, Persian has the word کرگدن (karkadan), apparently from Middle Persian (klg /karg/, “rhinoceros; horn”) + (-dʾn' /-dān/, “bearer, holder”), ultimately from Sanskrit खड्ग (khaḍga, “rhinoceros; literally sword bearer”).

This word is similarly found in other languages:

• Arabic كَرْكَدَّن‎ (karkaddan, “rhinoceros”)
• Classical Syriac ܟܪܟܕܢܐ‎ (karkǝḏānā, “rhinoceros”)
• Sanskrit खड्गधेनु (khaḍgadhenu, “a female rhinoceros”)
•  Avar: гаргадан (gargadan)
• Middle Armenian: քարկարտան (kʿarkartan), քարկանտան (kʿarkantan)
• Turkish: gergedan
• Uyghur: كەركىدان‎ (kerkidan)
• Uzbek: karkidon

Looking through the Semitic Etymology dictionary, I only found three entries related to the rhinoceros:

Number: 2648

Proto-Semitic: *yaʕal- ~ ʕawāl- (?)

Afroasiatic etymology: Afroasiatic etymology

Meaning: 'mythological bull' 1, 'rhinoceros' 2, 'young of the elephant' 3

Akkadian: alû (elû) 1 'bull (as a mythological being)' Bogh, SB, Akkadogr. in Hitt. CAD a1, 377

Syrian Aramaic: yaʕlā 2 'unicornus, rhinoceros' Br 305

Tigre: ʕǝwal 3 'young of the elephant' ("in der Poesie auch von anderen jungen Tieren gebraucht") [LH, 477], ʔäwal [ibid., apud Munz.] (hardly connected with *ʕVwVl- 'young of an animal' which is attested in Tgr as ʕǝlu 'young of the donkey' [LH 450]; <*ʔawāl- with a variant form in ʕ- through contamination with ʕǝlu) ?

Number: 2654

Proto-Semitic: *ḥar(i)ŝ/ŝx ( ~ *Hawuraris)

Afroasiatic etymology: Afroasiatic etymology

Meaning: 'rhinoceros'

Syrian Aramaic: Cf. ḥarsūmā 'proboscis; labia bovis' Br 257

Arabic: ḥarīš- [BK 1 408]

Geʕez (Ethiopian): ḥariŝ, ḥaris, ḥoras, ʔarwe ḥoras [LGz 244]

Amharic: Cf. ʔawuraris 'rhinocéros' Baet

Number: 2655

Proto-Semitic: *karkadan- ~ *karkand-

Meaning: 'rhinoceros'

Syrian Aramaic: karkǝdonō Brock. 346b

Arabic: karkaddan-, karkadann- [BK 2 888]

Geʕez (Ethiopian): karkand 'unicorn, rhinoceros' LGZ 291

The Assyrian dictionary only offered this:

From my standpoint, the issue here is not just that the words for "rhinoceros" are nothing like Re'em, but that even the one Proto-Semitic word that might refer to a rhinoceros independent of the Ge'ez and Sanskrit streams seems to have mythological connotations.  Arabic stands at a cross-roads between the two major streams and adopts names from both languages, but there seems to be no uniquely Arabic word distinct from the Ge'ez and Sanskrit.  

There are several Biblical Hebrew words with similarity to the "haris" root (Strong's Nos. 2789-2802, for example), but the closest seems to be 2793 "choresh" (חרֶשׁ), which has no obvious connection to rhinoceroses as such. Similarly with the other options.

What's the best explanation for this lack of word for rhinoceros among the Hebrews?  

This is the current range of the Rhinoceros.  Wooly rhinoceros remains have been found in the British isles and Siberia.  The most interesting variety of rhinoceros for the rhinoceros/unicorn identification is the Indian rhinoceros.  According to Brittanica: "The Indian rhinoceros previously occupied an extensive range across northern India and Nepal from Assam state in the east to the Indus River valley in the west." (source) 

The most likely explanation for the lack of a Hebrew word for rhinoceros is the absence of rhinoceroses in Canaan during the time period from the 15th century B.C. onward.  While I doubt some of the dating methods used, this article summarizes the current naturalistic view on the presence of rhinoceroses in Canaan: "Said Prof. Amos Frumkin, director of the Hebrew University’s Cave Research Center: 'Rhinos haven’t been seen in the land of Israel in the last twenty or thirty thousand years...'." (article describing the find of ancient rhinoceros remains in Samaria)

Jeremiah 18 and the Potter/Clay

Instead of appealing to the obvious biblical antecedent of the potter analogy in Romans 9 (namely Isaiah 29:16 and 45:9) or the most logical intertestamental literature (namely Wisdom 15:7), many non-Calvinists will turn to Jeremiah 18.  

Jeremiah 18:1-10

(1) The word which came to Jeremiah from the Lord, saying, (2) Arise, and go down to the potter's house, and there I will cause thee to hear my words. (3) Then I went down to the potter's house, and, behold, he wrought a work on the wheels. (4) And the vessel that he made of clay was marred in the hand of the potter: so he made it again another vessel, as seemed good to the potter to make it.

(5) Then the word of the Lord came to me, saying, (6) O house of Israel, cannot I do with you as this potter? saith the Lord. Behold, as the clay is in the potter's hand, so are ye in mine hand, O house of Israel. (7) At what instant I shall speak concerning a nation, and concerning a kingdom, to pluck up, and to pull down, and to destroy it; (8) If that nation, against whom I have pronounced, turn from their evil, I will repent of the evil that I thought to do unto them. (9) And at what instant I shall speak concerning a nation, and concerning a kingdom, to build and to plant it; (10) If it do evil in my sight, that it obey not my voice, then I will repent of the good, wherewith I said I would benefit them.

What non-Calvinists seem to overlook is the phrase "seemed good" in verse 4.  The point in that passage is not "even if the clay pot turned out badly, the potter could still find something to use it for," rather it is that "the clay is malleable and God can make from the clay what it pleases God to make."

The translation "seemed good" is a valid translation but when we read it, we may overlook that this same phrase is used consistently to describe strong preferences:

Numbers 23:27

And Balak said unto Balaam, Come, I pray thee, I will bring thee unto another place; peradventure it will please God that thou mayest curse me them from thence.

Judges 14:3

Then his father and his mother said unto him, Is there never a woman among the daughters of thy brethren, or among all my people, that thou goest to take a wife of the uncircumcised Philistines? And Samson said unto his father, Get her for me; for she pleaseth me well. 

Judges 14:7

And he went down, and talked with the woman; and she pleased Samson well.

1 Samuel 18:20

And Michal Saul's daughter loved David: and they told Saul, and the thing pleased him.

1 Samuel 18:26

And when his servants told David these words, it pleased David well to be the king's son in law: and the days were not expired.

2 Samuel 17:4

And the saying pleased Absalom well, and all the elders of Israel.

1 Kings 9:12

And Hiram came out from Tyre to see the cities which Solomon had given him; and they pleased him not.

1 Chronicles 13:4

And all the congregation said that they would do so: for the thing was right in the eyes of all the people.

2 Chronicles 30:4

And the thing pleased the king and all the congregation.

Jeremiah 18:4

And the vessel that he made of clay was marred in the hand of the potter: so he made it again another vessel, as seemed good to the potter to make it.

Jeremiah 27:5

I have made the earth, the man and the beast that are upon the ground, by my great power and by my outstretched arm, and have given it unto whom it seemed meet unto me.

The phrase combines yāšar (יָשַׁר) (straight or good) and ʿayin (עַיִן) (eye) (hence the translation at 1 Chronicles 13:4).  While arguments from etymology should always come with an asterisk, the idea is that something pleasing is what your eyes settle or focus on.  It's what you like to look at, as opposed to the things from which you turn away your face. We have the saying, "I can't take my eyes off of you," as an expression of desire, and it may convey some of the connotation of this particular expression.  Another possible explanation for the expression could derive from the human love of symmetry and order, particularly to the eye.  While some people revel in messiness, almost everyone has to concede that having things lined up properly is more pleasant to look at.  

In short, the final stage of the pot per Jeremiah 18:4 is not up to the pot, nor is it a backup plan in case in the pot messes up the potter's first plan, rather it is what God in a very real sense wants to see.

While non-Calvinists will tend to emphasize the role assigned to nations (either to turn from evil or to turn to evil) and treat God as merely responsive to the nations, the outcome is nevertheless all in the hands of God.  The point of the metaphor is not that clay gets to decide its own construction, but rather that God is free to do what God wants to do.

As a very minor side note, I found it interesting to see that the lexical form of the word for potter, yāṣar (יָצַר), differs from the lexical form of the word for straight/good, yāšar (יָשַׁר), primarily in that the former has a tzadie instead of a shin (yod-tsadeh-resh vs. yod-shin-resh).  Thus, as reflected in the transliterations, the words sound a bit alike.  I will leave it to others more versed in the pronunciation of Biblical Hebrew to say whether there is wordplay here, but I just found it interesting.  

Three Days and Three Nights - Hebrew Idiom for Three Consecutive Calendar Days

Jonah's use of "three days and three nights" repeated by Jesus in prophesying his own death, burial, and resurrection has led to some confusion. As you may recall, in Jonah, it is written:

Jonah 1:15-17
So they took up Jonah, and cast him forth into the sea: and the sea ceased from her raging. Then the men feared the Lord exceedingly, and offered a sacrifice unto the Lord, and made vows. Now the Lord had prepared a great fish to swallow up Jonah. And Jonah was in the belly of the fish three days and three nights.

Similarly, Jesus states:

Matthew 12:38-41
Then certain of the scribes and of the Pharisees answered, saying, Master, we would see a sign from thee. But he answered and said unto them, An evil and adulterous generation seeketh after a sign; and there shall no sign be given to it, but the sign of the prophet Jonas: for as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth. The men of Nineveh shall rise in judgment with this generation, and shall condemn it: because they repented at the preaching of Jonas; and, behold, a greater than Jonas is here.

Some people have taken this expression as expressing emphasis on both daylight and and dark periods, instead of understanding the expression as simply meaning three consecutive calendar days. Interestingly enough, the same expression is found in one other place, where it is fairly clear that three calendar days is meant:

1 Samuel 30:1 & 11-14
And it came to pass, when David and his men were come to Ziklag on the third day, that the Amalekites had invaded the south, and Ziklag, and smitten Ziklag, and burned it with fire; ... And they found an Egyptian in the field, and brought him to David, and gave him bread, and he did eat; and they made him drink water; and they gave him a piece of a cake of figs, and two clusters of raisins: and when he had eaten, his spirit came again to him: for he had eaten no bread, nor drunk any water, three days and three nights. And David said unto him, To whom belongest thou? and whence art thou? And he said, I am a young man of Egypt, servant to an Amalekite; and my master left me, because three days agone I fell sick. We made an invasion upon the south of the Cherethites, and upon the coast which belongeth to Judah, and upon the south of Caleb; and we burned Ziklag with fire.

The point of "three days and three nights" is just that the Egyptian had been continuously without food and water for three calendar days. The point is not the day and light portions, but the continuity. We see that from the fact that David returned "on the third day" (vs. 1) and from the fact that the Egyptian had only fallen sick "three days agone."

The way that "on the third day" worked for the Hebrew way of counting days can be seen from Jesus' own use:

Luke 13:32 And he said unto them, Go ye, and tell that fox, Behold, I cast out devils, and I do cures to day and to morrow, and the third day I shall be perfected.

Similarly, in Leviticus:

Leviticus 19:6 It shall be eaten the same day ye offer it, and on the morrow: and if ought remain until the third day, it shall be burnt in the fire.

Even in 1 Samuel, we see the same way of counting:

1 Samuel 20:5 And David said unto Jonathan, Behold, to morrow is the new moon, and I should not fail to sit with the king at meat: but let me go, that I may hide myself in the field unto the third day at even.

Regarding the use of days and nights, the point is not to emphasize the period of darkness, as though the Egyptian had been 72 hours without food, but simply to emphasize the continuity of his involuntary fast. We see the same principle employed in other situations where continuity is the point:

• "forty days and forty nights" of the rain in the great flood (Genesis 7:4 and 12).
• "forty days and forty nights" of Moses' fasts on the mount (Exodus 24:18 and 34:28, Deuteronomy 9:9, 11, 18, and 24, Deuteronomy 10:10).
• "forty days and forty nights" of Elijah's fast on his journey to Horeb (1 Kings 19:8)
• "seven days and seven nights" of Jobs' friends' silence (Job 2:13)
• "forty days and forty nights" of Jesus' fast in the wilderness (Matthew 4:2)

We also see the same thing in the use of the expression "day and night," which is used to mean "continuously." A few examples:

Leviticus 8:35 Therefore shall ye abide at the door of the tabernacle of the congregation day and night seven days, and keep the charge of the Lord, that ye die not: for so I am commanded.

Deuteronomy 28:66 And thy life shall hang in doubt before thee; and thou shalt fear day and night, and shalt have none assurance of thy life:

Joshua 1:8 This book of the law shall not depart out of thy mouth; but thou shalt meditate therein day and night, that thou mayest observe to do according to all that is written therein: for then thou shalt make thy way prosperous, and then thou shalt have good success.

1 Kings 8:59 And let these my words, wherewith I have made supplication before the Lord, be nigh unto the Lord our God day and night, that he maintain the cause of his servant, and the cause of his people Israel at all times, as the matter shall require:

1 Chronicles 9:33 And these are the singers, chief of the fathers of the Levites, who remaining in the chambers were free: for they were employed in that work day and night.

2 Chronicles 6:20 That thine eyes may be open upon this house day and night, upon the place whereof thou hast said that thou wouldest put thy name there; to hearken unto the prayer which thy servant prayeth toward this place.

Psalm 1:2 But his delight is in the law of the Lord; and in his law doth he meditate day and night.

Psalm 32:4 For day and night thy hand was heavy upon me: my moisture is turned into the drought of summer. Selah.

Psalm 42:3 My tears have been my meat day and night, while they continually say unto me, Where is thy God?

Luke 18:7 And shall not God avenge his own elect, which cry day and night unto him, though he bear long with them?

Acts 9:24 But their laying await was known of Saul. And they watched the gates day and night to kill him.

Acts 26:7 Unto which promise our twelve tribes, instantly serving God day and night, hope to come. For which hope's sake, king Agrippa, I am accused of the Jews.

Revelation 4:8 And the four beasts had each of them six wings about him; and they were full of eyes within: and they rest not day and night, saying, Holy, holy, holy, Lord God Almighty, which was, and is, and is to come.

Finally, recall that Jesus prophesied explicitly that he would rise "the third day":

Matthew 16:21 From that time forth began Jesus to shew unto his disciples, how that he must go unto Jerusalem, and suffer many things of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised again the third day.

Matthew 17:23 And they shall kill him, and the third day he shall be raised again. And they were exceeding sorry.

Matthew 20:19 And shall deliver him to the Gentiles to mock, and to scourge, and to crucify him: and the third day he shall rise again.

Matthew 27:64 Command therefore that the sepulchre be made sure until the third day, lest his disciples come by night, and steal him away, and say unto the people, He is risen from the dead: so the last error shall be worse than the first.

Mark 9:31 For he taught his disciples, and said unto them, The Son of man is delivered into the hands of men, and they shall kill him; and after that he is killed, he shall rise the third day.

Mark 10:34 And they shall mock him, and shall scourge him, and shall spit upon him, and shall kill him: and the third day he shall rise again.

Luke 9:22 Saying, The Son of man must suffer many things, and be rejected of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be slain, and be raised the third day.

Luke 18:33 And they shall scourge him, and put him to death: and the third day he shall rise again.

Luke 24:7 Saying, The Son of man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men, and be crucified, and the third day rise again.

Moreover, Jesus himself confirmed that this was true:

Luke 24:21 But we trusted that it had been he which should have redeemed Israel: and beside all this, to day is the third day since these things were done.

Luke 24:46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behooved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:

Moreover, Paul tells us the same thing:

1 Corinthians 15:4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

So, it is clear that the reference to "Three days and three nights" refers simply to three successive or consecutive calendar days, as opposed to meaning three periods of light and darkness. Otherwise, Jesus would rise on the fourth day after having been buried for 72 hours.

Finally, of course, we know that Jesus was killed on Friday, which is also called "Preparation":

Mark 15:42 And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath,

Luke 23:54 And that day was the preparation, and the sabbath drew on.

John 19:31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.

Moreover, we know that Jesus rose in the morning on the first day of the week:

Matthew 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.

Mark 16:2 And very early in the morning the first day of the week, they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun.

Mark 16:9 Now when Jesus was risen early the first day of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had cast seven devils.

Luke 24:1 Now upon the first day of the week, very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them.

John 20:1The first day of the week cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulchre, and seeth the stone taken away from the sepulchre.

John 20:19Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst, and saith unto them, Peace be unto you.

So, again, we can see that the three consecutive days were Friday, Saturday, Sunday.

In short, while the expression "three days and three nights" is a little unfamiliar as an idiom to our English-listening ears, with all the Biblical data, it becomes clear what was meant, and that what was meant was fully consistent with the rest of Scripture.

Die Like Men? A Response to Dr. Michael Heiser

We are all going to die. I don't mean that in an imminent way, though perhaps some of us will pass shortly, but instead in a general sense. It is the condition of humanity that all men die. You and I will both die one day. If you are not righteous in God's eyes when you come before His holy judgment, you will be sentenced to hell. Now, while there is time, repent of your sins. Ask God for mercy, and seize hold of Christ as your mediator. But that's not the primary reason I wrote this post. After all, many of the readers of this blog already believe.

Instead, I wanted to focus on responding to something Dr. Michael Heiser has written. I hope to add a few points to the excellent points already presented by Dr. White in his earlier post (link). You may recall that Dr. Heiser wrote: "If these elohim are humans, why are they sentenced to die “like humans”? A clear contrast is intended by both the grammar and structure of the Hebrew text (Prinsloo; Handy, “Sounds”)."

Dr. Heiser is referring to Psalm 82.

Background

Psalm 82 is a warning to unjust judges. God is the judge of judges, just as he is elsewhere described as the King of kings and Lord of lords. (1 Timothy 6:15; Revelation 17:14; and Revelation 19:16)

God accuses these judges of judging unjustly, and particularly accepting the bribes of the wicked. He tells them to defend the poor and fatherless, the afflicted and needy. Specifically he urges them to defend the weak from the powerful wicked.

Then, God changes voices and talks about these unjust judges, saying that they do not understand. God says that he has called them gods, and that they are children of God. Nevertheless, he warns them that they will die like men and princes die. The Psalm ends with the singer calling forth God's judgment on all nations.

These judges are referred to as "elohim" (as Dr. Heiser notes), but there are a few significant problems in Dr. Heiser's analysis.

I. Meaning of "Like Humans"
Dr. Heiser seems to insist that "like humans" must be translated in a way that distinguishes these unjust judges from humans. He's a credentialed professor in the area of Semitics, and I don't provide any credentials. Nevertheless, I'd like to encourage the reader to consider the evidence.

a) The other usages of the expression
The expression translated "like men" in the KJV is "כְּאָדָ֣ם". The precise form of this word is unique to Psalm 82:7, but very similar forms may be found in Job 31:33 ("כְאָדָ֣ם") and Hosea 6:7 ("כְּאָדָ֖ם").

i) Job 31:33

Job 31:33 If I covered my transgressions as Adam, by hiding mine iniquity in my bosom:

Notice that in this instance, the speaker is Job. There is really no denying that Job is human. In this instance, while Job is not admitting to being like Adam, he is discussing the matter hypothetically. Thus, the expression is not only not a denial of Job's humanity, but also not a way of distinguishing (at least not directly) Job from Adam. Of course, Job is not Adam, though Job is human.

ii) Hosea 6:7

Hosea 6:7 But they like men have transgressed the covenant: there have they dealt treacherously against me.

God here is speaking about people. There's really no serious question that the context is God talking about the wickedness of his chosen nation. I do wonder whether the better translation here might be (as in Job) "like Adam." Namely, they are transgressing the Covenant of Moses, just as Adam transgressed the Covenant of the Garden. Regardless, essentially the same analysis as in Job follows. They are not Adam, but they are men.

b) The immediate context
The immediate context of the expression "die like men" is a Hebrew parallelism to the expression "fall like one of the princes." The term "fall" here is a synonym for "die." Which princes are in mind here is somewhat of a difficult question.

Hosea 7:6 refers to the princes of Israel falling by the sword and 2 Samuel 3:38 refers to Abner's death as the falling of prince. While some have suggested that Satan's fall from heaven (Luke 10:18) is in mind, this seems somewhat strained, particularly given the parallel in play here. The "princes" (we must note) among the Israelites were the elders of the people, not the sons of the king (as in western monarchies). Thus, we see references to the princes of Israel both before (Numbers 21:18 and Judges 10:18) and after (Ezra 9:1-2 and Nehemiah 9:32) the monarchy, as well as during it (Jeremiah 26:16).

Notice as well that is not "like the princes" but "like one of the princes." This usage weighs in favor of translating "die like men" as "die like a man" or "die like Adam" (Adam means man, in Hebrew, so it is sometimes hard to distinguish the two). In any event, the Hebrew expression translated "like men" is a singular expression, and so is the expression "one of the princes."

These singular expressions do, in fact, contrast with "ye" (the plural pronoun in English - expressed in the Hebrew by the conjugation of the two verbs in the sentence). Thus, if Dr. Heiser is simply noting that there is a comparison being made, he's right. Yet it is an equivalent comparison to those in Job and Hosea mentioned above.

c) best sense
The best sense of the text is that God is warning these judges of their impending doom. We might paraphrase God's comment as: "Everyone dies (both ordinary men and princes), and you won't be an exception." Dr. Heiser views the comment from God as a sentence imposed on the judges, and - of course - death is a sentence for sin. It is sufficient, however, to simply view this as a proclamation of the doom that awaits unjust judges. They must die and come before the Judge of judges to answer for their injustice.

II. Backward Reference to the Pentateuch
In addition to the local context of the expression and the other uses of the expression, there is also the question of the relationship of meaning of this text with other texts. Dr. White has already addressed more than sufficiently the relationship of this text with the New Testament. That by itself should be a sufficient basis for rejecting Dr. Heiser's position. Nevertheless, the Old Testament also provides additional light.

Specifically, verse 6 does not simply refer to the judges as "gods" (elohim) but states that God has said this:

Psalm 82:6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

The question is, where did God describe these unjust judges as "gods" (elohim)? It seems unlikely that this is simply a reference back to verse 1 of the psalm, though we cannot completely eliminate the possibility.

There are several places where judges are referred to as "elohim" in the Pentateuch:

Exodus 21:6 Then his master shall bring him unto the judges (elohim); he shall also bring him to the door, or unto the door post; and his master shall bore his ear through with an aul; and he shall serve him for ever.

Exodus 22:8-9

If the thief be not found, then the master of the house shall be brought unto the judges (elohim), to see whether he have put his hand unto his neighbour's goods. For all manner of trespass, whether it be for ox, for ass, for sheep, for raiment, or for any manner of lost thing, which another challengeth to be his, the cause of both parties shall come before the judges (elohim); and whom the judges (elohim) shall condemn, he shall pay double unto his neighbour.

Exodus 22:28 Thou shalt not revile the gods (elohim), nor curse the ruler of thy people.

And beyond the Pentateuch:

1 Samuel 2:25 If one man sin against another, the judge (elohim) shall judge him: but if a man sin against the LORD, who shall intreat for him? Notwithstanding they hearkened not unto the voice of their father, because the LORD would slay them.

It should be noted, of course, that although that is the KJV's translation of the verses, as is so often the case, many of the modern translations disagree, using "God" instead of judges. Probably the strongest of these verses is Exodus 22:28, in that it provides a parallel between "reviling the gods" and "cursing the ruler of thy people," which serves to demonstrate that the two concepts are analogous. Furthermore Paul, in Acts 23:5, makes application of this verse (at least the second half of it) to the human rulers of Israel.

It is interesting to observe that while Dr. Heiser has attempted to dismiss Exodus 21:6 and Exodus 22:8-9, he has not provided a similar response to Exodus 22:28 (link).

Conclusion
Much of Dr. Heiser's argument with respect to the text relies on a higher critical framework that is repulsive to the traditional evangelical scholar. This makes interacting with Dr. Heiser difficult from the standpoint of finding any common ground upon which to premise discussions. I am not sure, for example whether the second part of this post (the other Old Testament references to human rulers as elohim) would have any particular significance for Dr. Heiser, because I'm not sure that Dr. Heiser would necessarily hold that the Scriptures have been providentially preserved for us, such that we might look for this prior statement of God in Scripture.

On the other hand, Dr. Heiser should be willing to accept the lexical grounds on which the first of the two points (i.e. the grammatical question of the expression "die like a man") is premised. I do not know whether Dr. Heiser will read this discussion, but - if he does - I would be very curious as to how he would seek to continue his argument that "die as humans do" (translation used by Heiser) is something that clearly distinguishes these elohim from humans.

Dr. Heiser's comment that "This sounds as awkward as sentencing a child to grow up or a dog to bark," seems to fail to appreciate the very different negative consequences of dying as opposed to growing up (unless one is Peter Pan) or barking. A better comparison would be the comparison in the Proverbs:

Proverbs 26:11 As a dog returneth to his vomit, so a fool returneth to his folly.

Cautioning the fool that he will return to his folly or a dog to his vomit is not an empty statement devoid of negative connotation. Indeed, the apostle Peter refers us to this very proverb:

2 Peter 2:22 But it is happened unto them according to the true proverb, The dog is turned to his own vomit again; and the sow that was washed to her wallowing in the mire.

Even so, contrary to Dr. Heiser's suggestion that "The point of verse 6 is that, in response to their corruption, the [elohim] will be stripped of their immortality at God's discretion and die as humans die," the point is that these judges should be aware of their mortality and the impending judgment of God. They should repent of their ways in order, at a minimum, to seek to avoid the punishment they deserve for their injustice. Dr. Heiser's attempted explanation might seem to work if the text only mentioned dying like a man, but it also mentions falling (a synonym for dying) like one of the princes. The concept emphasized by the parallel is not a stripping of immortality, but a reminder of existing mortality: every man and every prince will die and face judgment, these unjust judges being no exception.

I'll conclude with a similar warning from another Psalm:

Psalm 2:10-12
Be wise now therefore, O ye kings: be instructed, ye judges of the earth. Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling. Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and ye perish from the way, when his wrath is kindled but a little. Blessed are all they that put their trust in him.

-TurretinFan

Virgin Shall Conceive

I stumbled across this very odd video of a young man who thinks he has found an error in Christian doctrine. His point is this:

Sam Harris, in "The End of Faith" claims that the idea of the Virgin Birth comes from a mistranslation. Now, unfortunately the young man does not get it. He does not get the truth of the Virgin Birth and he does not yet Sam Harris' claims.

1. The basic idea here is that the word in Hebrew that is translated "virgin" means "young woman."

2. What the young man fails to recognize is that the argument for mistranslation is about the translation of the Old Testament prophecy, not about the translation of the New Testament account.

3. The doctrine of the Virgin Birth is not the doctrine of the "immaculate conception," though certainly Jesus himself was conceived and born sinless.

4. The gospel accounts (whether originally written in Greek - or in any other language) were clear about Mary's virginity prior to Christ's birth. The issue is clarified various ways, but the primary way is by the repeated discussion of the fact that Mary did not "know" (i.e. make love to) any man before Christ's birth; indeed, she did not even "know" Joseph, until Jesus was born. There is no possibility in the gospels, therefore, of a mistranslation from Hebrew to Greek, even if someone subscribed to the novel theory of Aramaic priority of the gospels, or the like.

5. The prophecy in Isaiah is this:

Isaiah 7:14 Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign, Behold a virgin (עלמה - almah) shall conceive and bear a son and shall his name Immanuel.

Now, the LXX translators who lived before the virgin birth of Christ correctly translated almah as παρθένος (parthenos), which means "virgin." It is true that almah has a broader semantic range. Nevertheless, there is a valid contextual reason for selecting the specific sense of "virgin." That reason is that a young woman giving birth is not particularly significant, but a virgin conceiving is something extraordinary. Yet, as you can see from the first part of the verse, the point of the communication is to relate a sign, something startling. Hence, the LXX translators correctly translated almah as parthenos, even though almah can have a more generic sense of "young woman."

Well, here is the link to the young man's video (link). It's sort of a watch it and weep scenario, but it is important to recognize the errors that are circulating out there.

-Turretinfan

On-Line Bibles

I'm pleased to announce that the German Bible Society has now made publicly available, via the internet, the text of:

The Hebrew Bible (BHS)
The LXX (Rahlfs/Hanhart)
The Nestle-Aland Critical Greek NT (NA27)
The Vulgate (Weber/Gryson)
and others

Get it here (link)
Thanks to Nick Norelli for bringing it to my attention (link).

-Turretinfan