When I say Jesus' human nature is divinized, what do I mean? I do not mean that the divine nature is mixed with the human nature, what I mean is that the union of the two natures in the one person of Jesus Christ makes his human nature divinized such that it participates in divinity to a degree no one else can.First, Reiss has the cart before the horse. The Word was made flesh - not the flesh made Word. The Son of God was incarnated - it is what we call the Nestorian error (or something close to) to treat Christ as though he was a human who became divinized.
Second, the hypostatic union brought about by the Incarnation (one person in two natures) is an absolutely unique event. It has no precedent, no adequate analog, and it will have no sequel. There always has been a Trinity, and there will never be a Quadernity - and while there is perhaps nothing that prevents the Father or Spirit being Incarnate, there is no reason for such an event, the Son has fulfilled his task and purpose in the Incarnation:
Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil; and deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage. For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people. For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
Third, notice that in the passage above he took on precisely human nature. Not something close to human nature, but true flesh and blood. The only difference being that Christ was without sin:
Hebrews 4:15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.
Turretin Fan said that Jesus' unique authority does not suggest his humanity is any different than ours. But that depends on what we mean by "different". How does Jesus' human nature participate meaningfully in any miracles? To be consistent, Turretin Fan would have to say that because our human nature cannot perform miracles, it was only Jesus' divinity which performed miracles. But how is that done without falling into some species of Nestorianism?Part of the confusion seems to be Reiss' use of the term "participate" and especially "meaningfully participate." These vague expressions seem to be the reason for Reiss to apparently confuse the natures and attribute to the human nature things that are properly divine.
Reiss does not think that Moses' human nature "participated meaningfully" (whatever Reiss is intending to mean by that) in Moses' miracles (we can infer this from the fact that Reiss does not call Moses' flesh "divinized"), but Reiss insists (without explanation or reason) that Christ's human nature must "participate meaningfully" or we run into Nestorianism because, according to Reiss, "if the divine nature 'does' something apart from Jesus' human nature that immediately implies a divine person and a human person ... ."
Reiss brings in this vague word "participate" and then asks, in the conclusion of his post:
So, I would like to ask Turretin (or any one else) in what sense does the person Jesus Christ hold together all things, and in what way does his humanity participate in this without dividing the person?The answer, of course, is that he himself hasn't defined what "participation" means. He's picked a vague word to discuss the issue and left it undefined. One could say that Moses had some sort of "participation" in at least some of the miracles he performed. However, since not every sense of "participation" will work for Reiss' system, we aren't sure what new touchstone of orthodoxy he wants to set forth. We're also a little confused by his "to a degree no one else can" since the difference between the hypostatic union and ordinary men is not one of degree.
The fact that Jesus is one person doesn't justify a confusion of the natures. Yet Reiss' question seems to suggest that we ought to confuse the natures and attribute the supernatural power of the divine specifically to the flesh Christ took from Mary. While some amount of improper (i.e. imprecise) characterization is orthodox (we're not required always to carefully maintain the lines of distinction between the natures whenever we speak), nevertheless when we speak of Christ's flesh and blood properly and precisely, it is the same as ours, except that it is not tainted by sin. Since Reiss hasn't defined "participate" we can't be sure, however, whether he is confusing or blending the natures when he says: "his human nature divinized such that it participates in divinity to a degree no one else can."