"If You Understand One Thing About The "King James Only" Phenomenon it is Imperative to Know This ... The textual end justifies the textual means. They are motivated only in defending a modern printed text and any questions of methodology are irrelevant because they are governed by their a priori that the Textus Receptus (the Greek printed edition that lies behind the KJV) is without error. " (source)
Is it really their position that the Textus Receptus (i.e. one of Stephens' editions of the Greek testament) is without error, or is it rather that the English translation is without error?
I've always had the impression in my discussions with folks who consider themselves KJVO that it is the translation that is without error, not the underlying Greek (or Hebrew, for that matter). Take, for example, this comment: "the pure and whole Word of God, the traditional text (in English) Authorized Version, 1611.," from "Plain Path Puritan" (source).
Did you have a different impression, or what?
As to the underlying point of the article linked above (namely, don't take your sources out of context), that's a perfectly valid criticism and something I see all the time not only from KJVO advocates but from armchair theologians of these Internet times.