Friday, March 06, 2009

Question for My Muslim Readers

Today I stumbled across an interesting question for my Muslim readers. The question is, how can Mohamed be called the greatest prophet? The question provides evidence from the Koran itself to document the idea that, even based solely on the Koran, Jesus was a greater prophet than any other prophet. Please consider reading and thinking about this question before you answer (link).

I should be quick to point out that the reason why I believe that Jesus was greater than Mohamed was not only the sorts of things laid out in the linked question, but specifically the fact that Jesus was (and is) both God and man, in two distinct natures and one person.

In terms of specific evidence, I direct you to the fact that not only did Jesus himself raise the dead, but on the third day after the crucifixion of the Messiah, God raised Jesus from the dead.

-TurretinFan

7 comments:

Ken said...

And furthermore, Jesus raised Himself from the dead.
John 10:18

Anonymous said...

In Luke 7:28 Jesus say "For I say unto you, Among those that are born of women there is not a greater prophet than John the Baptist: but he that is least in the kingdom of God is greater than he."

So, either John is greater than Jesus or Jesus wasn't born of a woman. See, two can play at this game.

Turretinfan said...

If I recall correctly, John 10:18 says Jesus could raise himself, not that he did. I would normally ascribe the act of resurrection to the person of the Father, based on other versus. But, since Jesus is God, Jesus could raise himself from the dead.

Turretinfan said...

Anonymous, I've responded to your comments in a new post (link). Please check them out there.

Ken said...

One of the proofs of the Trinity is that each person of the Trinity is involved in the resurrection:

The Father raised Jesus from the dead. (Many verses) Just a few - Romans 10:9-10; Acts 13:30; Acts 17:31, Acts 2:24; Acts 2:32; Acts 3:26

The Son raised Himself from the dead. John 10:18

I have never seen that distinction before between "could" and "did". Interesting.

Does that mean He also only "could" lay His life down, not that He actually did voluntarily lay His life down? “I have authority to lay it down” ( I have - Present active indicative verb with “ lay it down” – Aorist Infinitive) and “I have authority to take it up again” (same construction – Present Active Indicative, have, with Aorist Infinitive – to take up)

I think He means to say that He could and He actually did raise Himself up from the dead; another proof of the Deity of Christ.

Muslims argue that the next phrase “this command I received from My Father” negates all this, saying that God gave Him power just as He gave the other prophets power to do miracles. I think Jesus is claiming to be God here; and He also is showing His intimate relationship with the Father, in the same vein as, “I can do nothing of Myself”. John 8:28


And the Holy Spirit raised Him from the dead:
justified by the Spirit
I Timothy 3:16

made alive by the Spirit
I Peter 3:18

Romans 8:11
if the Spirit of Him that raised up Jesus from the dead

Romans 1:4
According to the Spirit of holiness (the Holy Spirit) by the resurrection of the dead

Ken said...

Here is another one, John 2:19 – “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up” . . .
John 2:21 –“But he was speaking of the temple of his body.”

A comment from John Calvin himself:

http://www.ccel.org/ccel/calvin/calcom.vii.html?scrBook=John&scrCh=10&scrV=18#vii-p131.2

“The power with which he was declared, or the power which shone forth in Christ, that is, in his resurrection, was God’s own power; and this proves that he was God. The same point becomes clear in another place where Paul confesses that Christ’s death revealed him as subject to the infirmity of the flesh, and extols the power of the Spirit in his resurrection (2 Cor. 13:4). But this glorious work cannot be known by us unless the Spirit himself impresses it upon our hearts. The very fact that Paul calls the Spirit the Spirit of holiness, shows that in his mind the same wonderful efficacy of the Spirit revealed in the resurrection of Christ from the dead is to be seen in the witness which individual believers know in their hearts. He means that as the Spirit sanctifies, he shows and ratifies the power which he exercised once before in raising Christ from the dead. The various titles which Scripture gives to the Spirit fortify the present argument. For instance, our Lord calls him the Spirit of truth, because he effects truth in believers (John 14:17).
Besides, the power shown forth in Christ’s resurrection was his own as well as God’s; as is evident from the sayings: Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up (John 2:19); and, No one takes my life; of myself, etc. (John 10:18). For he did not beg his victory over death (to which he yielded by the infirmity of the flesh) from another, but achieved it by the working of his own Spirit.”

Turretinfan said...

Good points, Ken! Thanks for the further clarification!