Today, I stubled across this article (link).
If you have in interest in the ongoing atonement debate, you should compare that article with the post I presented (here).
He makes a couple of additional points that I do not (specifically regarding soter being anarthous in the verse in question, and the historical Greek usage of the term soter), but my reading is that he is mostly in agreement with what I wrote (though, of course, since he wrote first, we should say it the other way 'round).
P.S. Seth: you do not have to respond to Dr. Baugh's paper, of course, as I'm not including this comparison as part of the debate. It's just interesting to note the similarities between the my post and the paper.